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2016PMP项目管理师考试(英文)模拟试卷(1)

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  1. The project manager can enhance project communication and team building by doing all the following except—

    • A.Having a war room
    • B.Using a tight matrix
    • C.Being a good communication blocker
    • D.Being a communication expeditor
    • E.Holding effective meetings
  2. As a project communication management process, administrative closeout consists of verifying and documenting project results to formalize acceptance of the project product by the customer. The output generated from administrative closeout activities consists of—

    • A.Project archives, formal acceptance, and lessons learned
    • B.Change requests, project records, and lessons learned
    • C.Lessons learned, performance reports, and change requests
    • D.Communication management plans, change requests, and project archives
    • E.None of the above
  3. When communicating with an action-oriented person, a project manager should—

    • A.Be as brief as possible and emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas
    • B.Provide options, including the pros and cons
    • C.Stress the relationships between his or her proposals and the people concerned
    • D.Remain patient if the other person goes off on tangents
    • E.Speak as quickly as possible to ensure that all the information is conveyed
  4. The presence of communication barriers is most likely to lead to—

    • A.Reduced productivity
    • B.Increased hostility
    • C.Low morale
    • D.Increased conflict
    • E.Increased stress
  5. Empathic Listening entails understanding another person’s frame of referenceTo exhibit empathic Listening skills, a project manager should—

    • A.Mimic the content of the message
    • B.Probe, then content, then advise
    • C.Evaluate the content, then advise
    • D.Rephrase the content and reflect the feeling
    • E.None of the above
  6. A project manager who wants to create a receptive atmosphere for communicating should

    • A.Ensure that all communication is clear and understood
    • B.Speak or write as he or she would like to be spoken or written to
    • C.Have the project team prepare a project communication plan
    • D.Ensure that team members have the information needed to do their work
    • E.Ensure that team members have the tools available to facilitate
  7. Which of the following terms describes the strong pressures within a group to conform to group norms at the expense of critical and innovative thinking?

    • A.Group oppression
    • B.Groupspeak
    • C.Groupthought
    • D.Groupthought
    • E.Groupgrope
  8. The tool technique used for communication planning is—

    • A.Stakeholder analysis
    • B.Communication skills
    • C.Information retrieval systems
    • D.None of the above
  9. In general, disagreements among stakeholders should be resolvedin

    • A.Sponsor
    • B.Customer
    • C.Performing organization
    • D.Senior management
    • E.None of the above
  10. When the project team is not collocated, establishing a way to help team members communicate quickly and frequently is essential. One practical approach is to---

    • A.Bring everyone together frequently for meetings
    • B.Conduct informal audioconference meetings regularly
    • C.Hold a project kickoff meeting
    • D.Set up an electronic yearbook that lists each team member’s accomplishments and background
    • E.All the above
  11. The weatherman predicted there is a 45% chance of rain and a 10% chance that the rain will be accompanied by wind What is the probability that the baseball game will be called due to rain and wind?

    • A.4.5%
    • B.45%
    • C.48.5%
    • D.55%
  12. While identifying the risks associated with a new project, the PM finds that the vendor feels there is a 15% chance that their employees will go on strike Which would impact the delivery of a critical component of the project? Upper management indicates there is a 25% probability there will be a hiring freeze which will limit the new personnel which can be hired for the team. What is the probability that both risk issues will occur and impact the success of the project?

    • A.37.5%
    • B.40%
    • C.3.75%
    • D.Not enough information provided
  13. A situation in which one of two or more risk events will follow an act, but the precise nature of these events may not be known and the probabilities of their occurring cannot be objectively assigned, is the definition of:

    • A.Certainty
    • B.Uncertainty
    • C.Risk
    • D.Risk adversity
    • E.None of the above
  14. A proposed project will have an initial outlay of $1,500. At the end of year one, there is a 0.3 probability of loss and a 0.7 probability of a $2,000 revenue At the end of year two, there is a 0.4 probability of a $200 loss and a 0.6 probability of a $5,000 revenue Assuming an interest rate of 10 percent compounded annually, what is the expected net present value of the project?

    • A.$3,254
    • B.$2.158
    • C.$450
    • D.$200
  15. Uncertainty is often used in conjunction with the term risk, implying that uncertainty is risk. Uncertainty is an unknown situation, which may result from a lack of information to sufficiently quantify the probability of occurrence of an event and to determine the most likely outcome Therefore, and uncertainty that has a potential for a major impact on a project should be:

    • A.Assigned a risk exposure index of 0.8 pending further resolution of the risk exposure
    • B.Ignored until additional information can be obtained to resolve the actual risk exposure
    • C.Studied to determine alternatives that may have a high risk index, but are fully understood
    • D.Resolved before project implementation, but must be resolved before starting that area of work
    • E.Resolved before project implementation or the project must be delayed pending a better understanding of the situation
  16. Lease and rental of equipment for short periods of time to perform specified project work is a common practice The equipment poses ______ unless the contractor (lessor) ______

    • A.No risk, abuses the equipment beyond fair usage
    • B.No risk, assumes title to the equipment during the use period
    • C.Risk, insures for damage or loss
    • D.Risk, denies liability during the use period
    • E.Risk, insures for the cost of lease, rental, or hire
  17. It is possible to transfer risk through the use of insurance If the estimated probability of damage occurring to an asset is 2 percent, the insurance cost is $5,000, and the total worth of the asset is $300,000, is it worth insuring the asset?

    • A.There is no advantage since the cost of the insurance equals the cost of the possible loss of the asset
    • B.The insurance costs less than the expected value of the loss, so therefore it is best to purchase the insurance
    • C.Not desirable since it costs more to purchase the insurance than the expected value of the loss
    • D.Cannot determine form information provided
  18. The term deflection has a number of meanings, but in terms of pure risk mitigation strategies, deflection is accomplished by:

    • A.Performing contingent plans
    • B.Contracting to a sub-contractor
    • C.Allowing the owner to perform the mitigation strategy since the contractor feels it was not called for in the contract
    • D.Allowing the float in the schedule to take care of the risk
  19. Performance of a contract can bring liabilities other than the stated and implied warranty and guarantee that have implications of risk, but are perhaps not as visible Two of these liabilities are ________ and ________ infringements.

    • A.Trade secret, technology
    • B.Process secret, advanced technology
    • C.Patent, copyright
    • D.Trade name, trade secret
    • E.Design and fabrication
  20. The project manager establishes a risk models that will be used on the Boston project. The risk model shows the risk events and provides the probabilities of occurrence What is missing from this risk design?

    • A.Nothing, the risk design is complete
    • B.The risk probabilities need to be summed to determine the total project risk
    • C.The risk events must be labeled as internal or external risk events
    • D.The risk events do not address the technology used by the Boston project
    • E.The impact of the risk on the project’s objectives has not been assessed and assigned
  21. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a method of scheduling projects. In the context of risk, PERT is better than the Critical Path Method because it deals with the _______ associated with ________.

    • A.Logic, cost estimates
    • B.Logic, schedule estimates
    • C.Certainty, cost estimates
    • D.Uncertainty, schedule estimates
    • E.Certainty, schedule estimates
  22. The concept of standard deviation is important in risk analysis since standard deviation measures an estimate’s variability. Therefore, the _______ the standard deviation of an estimate, the _______ its variability and risk.

    • A.Larger, greater
    • B.Larger, lesser
    • C.Smaller, greater
    • D.Smaller, normalcy
  23. During the risk analysis process, it is determined that one identified risk event cannot be avoided, mitigated, or insured This risk event is a critical item that could cause the project to fail if it occurs. The best option for the project manager is to:

    • A.Play down the risk and the team will find a means of overcoming any failure
    • B.Place special emphasis on the risk event to intensely manage that item and all interfacing items
    • C.Have the risk assessment team continue to analyze the risk event until it reduces the expected negative value
    • D.Continue to search for an insurance company that would assume the risk
    • E.Ignore the risk assessment because any assigned value is a point estimate which is never precisely the expected state of nature
  24. Bo calls his project team to quantify and assess the risks of their project. The benefits the team will gain from this exercise include all but which of the following?

    • A.Thoroughly understand the project, the associated risks and the impact of risk on all parts of the project
    • B.Develop risk mitigation strategies for dealing with issues identified
    • C.Ensure all identified risk issues are incorporated into project planning
    • D.Identify alternatives which may exist
  25. Sensitivity analysis and brainstorming are two of many different methods to identify risk. What are the advantages of using sensitivity analysis?

    • A.The affects of variables within the project are well understood
    • B.It allows for independent answers
    • C.Management understands that there is a range of possible outcomes
    • D.It provides insight into the project that the PM may be lacking
    • E.A & C
  26. The total amount of risk that is calculated for a project is found by:

    • A.Multiplying the sum of each the risks times the amount at stake
    • B.Calculating the cumulative sum of the probability for each risk and multiplying this value times the consequence of occurrence of the risk events
    • C.Cannot be calculated since all risks are not known
    • D.The amount of project reserves available
  27. A project of 2 million has an adverse event that has the probability of 50% of occurrence and a potential loss of $20,000. This represents an expected negative value of:

    • A.$100,000
    • B.$1,000
    • C.$100
    • D.$10,000
  28. The assigned values of risk for a project is best accomplished through a structured methodology that ensures all project elements are evaluated The project tool that is best suited for the structured analysis of the project risk is the:

    • A.Contract
    • B.Specification
    • C.Statement of work
    • D.Work breakdown structure
    • E.Network programming diagram
  29. What is the most accurate method of obtaining project information that can reduce the amount of risk?

    • A.Observations on the current project
    • B.Determining the risk by using brainstorming techniques
    • C.The use of historical data from previous projects that were similar in nature
    • D.Sensitivity analysis
    • E.Delphi technique
  30. Contained within the first step of a five step process to determine the risk analysis of the project’s risk events, a process of ________ is performed to see if the risk should be included or excluded as part of the project scope

    • A.Determining the probability
    • B.Contingency effort
    • C.Assessing the consequences and severity
    • D.Screening
  31. In a project environment, functional managers are responsible for:

    • A.Acting as a sounding board for clarification of critical issues.
    • B.Setting ground rules and assumptions
    • C.Outlining time, cost and performance constraints.
    • D.Identifying and developing mitigation strategies for areas of risk.
    • E.Establishing administrative policies
  32. In order to approve a project, management using simple, as well as complex, sophisticated tools to determine how the project fits into it’s strategic plan. When the project selection includes an in-depth analysis, using complex, sophisticated tools, is os considered to be part of what project phase?

    • A.Implementation
    • B.Termination
    • C.Conceptual
    • D.Operational
    • E.None of the above
  33. On a small project, one of the vendors informs the PM that he will substitute a better quality pipe for the pipe included in the initial plan since the pipe originally quoted is unavailable Due to circumstances, the vendor indicated there would be no additional cost to the project. He also informs the PM that, due to a slight delay in delivery of the pipe, he will work on another task ahead of schedule Where will the PM record these modifications?

    • A.WBS
    • B.Cost change control
    • C.Scope change control
    • D.Project schedule
    • E.A & D
  34. Change requests are an integral part of a project, and one of the ways a PM controls scope changes. Change requests are a result of:

    • A.Changes in quality of a vendor-provided component
    • B.A beneficial change, which occurred after the scope was approved
    • C.An error or omission is the product description
    • D.A make or buy decision which was modified
    • E.All of the above
  35. To integrate approved scope changes, the PM should begin with:

    • A.Approved budget
    • B.Project schedule
    • C.Human resource requirements
    • D.Product description
    • E.WBS
  36. ABC company commonly used Sum of the Years method to calculate depreciation on assets. They purchased a computer which cost $15,000, knowing they can sell it at the end of three years for $3,000. How much depreciation is taken the third year?

    • A.$4,000
    • B.$2,000
    • C.$7,500
    • D.$2,500
  37. Your company has established a reward and recognition system for its project management professionals. Project cost performance is used as a criterion to determine rewards. What should you do to ensure that rewards reflect actual performance?

    • A.Consider overtime work as part of the job
    • B.Prepare a cost baseline
    • C.Use earned value management to monitor performance
    • D.Estimate and budget controllable and monitor performance
  38. The initial cost of your project is $25,000, which will save the company $6,000 per year for the next four years. Using the above table If your company wants a 12% ROI, what is the NPV of the project?

    • A.-$1,000
    • B._$6,772
    • C.+$1,758
    • D.+$6,772
  39. If the project was supposed to have $1.000worth of work accomplished, but only completed $850 worth of work, what is the Scheduled Variance?

    • A.$150
    • B.$1.500
    • C.Cannot calculate from the information provided
    • D.-$150
  40. In fixed price contract which of the following holds true?

    • A.The seller agrees to use his best effort to fulfill the contract within the estimated contract amount
    • B.The seller agrees to perform a service or furnish supplies at the established contract price
    • C.If the amount of the contract is exceeded the seller is not obligated to perform further unless the buyer increases the funds
    • D.More risk is placed on the buyer
  41. One of the types of cost estimation is Order of Magnitude This estimate

    • A.Is performed when detailed information is available
    • B.Is performed when little if any information is available
    • C.Is used in the beginning of the project conceptualization
    • D.B and C
  42. The BCWS=$250, the ACWP=$350, and the BCWP=$200, Calculate the Cost Variance

    • A.–$150
    • B.$150
    • C.-$50
    • D.$50
  43. Which one of the following is NOT a trade-off decision that must be made in the development of the project plan?

    • A.Whether to use skilled or unskilled laborers.
    • B.The amount of profit vendors should make versus the profit other vendors have received in the past.
    • C.Manufacturing in-house or sub-contracting ort the work.
    • D.The importance of cost versus quality.
  44. Cost controls can be best described by which of the following?

    • A.The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
    • B.The process of assembling and predicting cots of project over its life cycle
    • C.The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed
    • D.The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, monitoring, reporting, and managing the costs on an on-going basis
  45. Cost Variance (CV) is which of the following equations?

    • A.CV=BCWP-BCWS
    • B.CV=BCWP-ACWP
    • C.CV=SV/BCWS
    • D.A and C
  46. Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor doing the project work?

    • A.Cost plus fixed fee
    • B.Fixed price
    • C.Fixed price plus incentive fee
    • D.B and C
  47. To assist in budget control, it is suggested that the estimate occur at the _______ level of the WBS.

    • A.Highest
    • B.Lowest
    • C.Major work effort
    • D.Third
  48. Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?

    • A.Preliminary
    • B.Definitive
    • C.Order of magnitude
    • D.Conceptual
  49. What is the purpose of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

    • A.The WBS allows the project manager to delegate responsibility of all of the project activities
    • B.The WBS is a narrative description of the work required for the project
    • C.The WBS describes the total program as a summation of subdivided elements
    • D.The WBS is a statement of what will be made, how many units will be made, and when they will be made
  50. When costs increase because of changes in the scope of work, the project is experiencing-

    • A.Accelerated costs
    • B.Cost growth
    • C.Cost escalation
    • D.Cost overrun
    • E.Cost risk
  51. Cost estimating can be best described by which of the following:

    • A.The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
    • B.The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
    • C.The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed
    • D.The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, monitoring, reporting, and managing the costs on an on-going basis
  52. A buyer has negotiated a fixed-price incentive contract with the seller. The contract has a target cost of $200,000, a target profit of $30,000,and a target price of $230,000. The buyer has also negotiated a ceiling price of $270,000 and a share ratio of 70/30. If the seller completes the contract with actual costs of $170,000, how much profit will the buyer pay the seller?

    • A.$21,000
    • B.$30,000
    • C.$35,000
    • D.$39,000
    • E.$51,000
  53. Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable, so project personnel often attempt to be "creative" in developing the contract's terms and conditions. If all the following options are available, the best course of action to meet the requirements of the project is to-

    • A.Preqare unique terms and conditions
    • B.Tailor an existing contract
    • C.Use standard clauses whenever possible
    • D.Avoid using contractual documents
    • E.None of the above
  54. Three techniques used for procurement planning are-

    • A.Make-or -buy analysis, expert judgment, and contract type selection
    • B.Fixed-price, cost-reimbursement, and unit-price contracts
    • C.Cost and schedule estimates, invoice processing, and cash flow projections
    • D.Scope statement, change management, and marketing analysis
    • E.Contract type selection, negotiation, and cash flow projections
  55. Which item is not a basic element of a contract?

    • A.Offer
    • B.Acceptance
    • C.Consideration
    • D.Pricing structure
    • E.Legality of purpose
  56. Which of the following terms represents a contract type category?

    • A.Fixed-price
    • B.Cost-reimbursement
    • C.Unit-price
    • D.a & b
    • E.a, b, & c
  57. When a seller breaches a contract, the buyer cannot receive-

    • A.Compensatory damages
    • B.Punitive damages
    • C.Specific performance
    • D.Liquidated damages
    • E.All the above
  58. The contracting function in an organization is considered to be decentralized when-

    • A.Each project manager has control over the contracting process for his or her project
    • B.The project manager controls contract award
    • C.The contracting person appointed to the project is available and under the project manager's direct control
    • D.Contracting is tailored to a single project
    • E.All above
  59. Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions under the stated conditions. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure that the prime contractor provides payment of-

    • A.Insurance premiums
    • B.Weekly payrolls
    • C.Incremental earnec
    • D.Subcontractors, laborers, and suppliers of material
    • E.Damages for accidents caused
  60. Buyers use a variety of methods to provide incentives to a seller to complete work early or within certain contractually specified time frames. One such incentive is the use of liquidated damages. From the seller's perspective, liquidated damages are what form of incentive?

    • A.Positive
    • B.Negative
    • C.Nomi
    • D.Reverse
    • E.Risk-prone